So I've been wondering. How do certain linguistic concepts work in Japanese?
Are particles considered function words or bound derivational morphemes? Would to の, for example, be considered a free morpheme acting as a function word, or would it be a derivative morpheme in cases such as 猫のおもちゃ?
Also, in compounds in which the non-standard readings are used, do the compounds count as a combination of lexemes, or of morphemes? Would 行方 be いく+ほう, 行+方、or a whole new lexeme, ゆくえ?
Speaking of which, in 形容動詞 is the な part of the original morpheme and dropped during conjugation, or is the な a bound morpheme in the basic form?
When considering formal logic, how would the subtle differences between へ、に and で be noted?
例:公園へいく。 公園に行く。
Would both be marked as いく(k、x)? Or is there a special notation in such cases?
Isn't Japanese technically breaching most Gricean maxims by default? It can be either too terse(informal) or contain too much information(敬語), and the subtlety and/or implication required to understand what is said can rather extreme. Not to mention that meiosis can be almost as big of a breach as sarcasm sometimes.
Can epistemic modality even be properly analyzed with all the modality that is added for the sake of politeness?
And that's the random questions for today. Really looking forward to hearing some opinions on this.
Are particles considered function words or bound derivational morphemes? Would to の, for example, be considered a free morpheme acting as a function word, or would it be a derivative morpheme in cases such as 猫のおもちゃ?
Also, in compounds in which the non-standard readings are used, do the compounds count as a combination of lexemes, or of morphemes? Would 行方 be いく+ほう, 行+方、or a whole new lexeme, ゆくえ?
Speaking of which, in 形容動詞 is the な part of the original morpheme and dropped during conjugation, or is the な a bound morpheme in the basic form?
When considering formal logic, how would the subtle differences between へ、に and で be noted?
例:公園へいく。 公園に行く。
Would both be marked as いく(k、x)? Or is there a special notation in such cases?
Isn't Japanese technically breaching most Gricean maxims by default? It can be either too terse(informal) or contain too much information(敬語), and the subtlety and/or implication required to understand what is said can rather extreme. Not to mention that meiosis can be almost as big of a breach as sarcasm sometimes.
Can epistemic modality even be properly analyzed with all the modality that is added for the sake of politeness?
And that's the random questions for today. Really looking forward to hearing some opinions on this.
