First, sorry I've been away. I've been busy moving but I'm done with all that now. OK, back to the discussion.
ryuudou Wrote:bflatnine Wrote:Fluent, by definition, means that the language flows.
That's improper usage of the denotation. Fluent as in "flowing" usually applies to something like water. The proper usage would be the attribute of adeptness in a language, or "ease" is also a common word.
"Ease" does not mean native-like. A person could speak his L2 with "ease" and not be able to do much more than chit chat and order food. I've known people like this. But we wouldn't say that person has language ability comparable to an educated native speaker (remember from earlier that this is what I mean by "native-like fluency"). Same thing goes for "flowing," so I believe we can agree that "fluent" means that the language flows, not necessarily that the person has any particular level of ability in the language. That has to be further defined, hence the reason for the existence of terms like "basic fluency," "advanced fluency," and "native-like fluency."
Quote:bflatnine Wrote:We need to also remember that there is a difference between a native speaker mistaking you for a native and your brain actually functioning like a native. Linguistics is a cognitive science, so I think it is more appropriate to define linguistic ability from a cognitive perspective rather than a performance perspective.
That's not realistic. Ask yourself what really matters in the art of language. If I outperform a native person of a respective country there's nothing his native brain can do. I am better than him at that language. Attributing nativity to language ability is misleading to the learners. It implies that they have something the learners don't, when in reality it's just a head start.
I should have been more clear about this. I'm not arguing that a person can't demonstrate fluency and literacy equivalent to an educated native speaker. I'm arguing that we need to define our terms from a cognitive perspective. There is a difference between "native ability" and "native-like ability." One has to do with L1, the other with L2. Note that these terms (L1 and L2) have nothing to do with birth, and everything to do with mother tongue versus second language.
The point is not that I'm "attributing nativity to language ability;" it's that, outside of rare circumstances like I noted before, the L2 will never be the same to you as your L1. In other words, you will never have "native ability" in your L2. They occupy different places in the brain. This is a well-known and well-researched area of second language acquisition.
"Native-like ability" (defined as "the fluency and literacy equivalent to that of a native speaker") is a performance-based assessment, and can describe L2 proficiency. "Native ability," (defined as "the ability of an educated native speaker") is only applicable to L1. The casual observer may not be able to tell the difference. But if you were to see which portions of the brain are active, you'd see that there is a difference between L1 and L2, no matter how proficient the person may be in his L2. L1 input stimulates more activity in the brain (namely in the left temporal lobe, including the temporal pole) than does L2 input.
Quote:tl;dr: Performance > Cognitive
This was pointless, arrogant, and a little irritating. Let's try to keep this discussion a little more mature. If I couldn't be bothered to even read your post, I'd have the decency to drop out of the conversation rather than waste your time. I hope you'd have the same courtesy.
Quote:Results matter. Otherwise we wouldn't need to speak or write. As long as our brain functions in a certain way (which is only related to nativity by coincidence, as your examples made apparent) we're fine, right? No.
Read above for a better explanation. Sure, performance is what we're after in learning a foreign language, but for the sake of accuracy in our terms and clarity in our discussion we have to define terms from an academic standpoint. I'm not saying that people can never demonstrate fluency and literacy indistinguishable from that of an educated native from an outside view. I'm saying that we can't call that "native ability." It has to be called "native-like ability." Native=mother tongue=L1 for all intents and purposes, not counting rare instances I noted earlier. Native-like=second language=L2. Again, I'm not disagreeing with you on the level of proficiency a person can attain, I'm disagreeing on which term is more appropriate so the discussion can continue with (hopefully) less confusion.
Quote:bflatnine Wrote:Except in rare cases (such as the Japanese man who lived in Ukraine for 60 years mentioned above), your L1 will always be your dominant language, whether you can fool natives or not.
Except the fact that situations where people are cut off from their native language happen all the time. This further expands on what I said above. Attributing language ability to nativity in the real world is misleading.
Hopefully I've clarified this above. It also bears mentioning that in these situations, the older you are when you become "cut off" from your L1, the less likely you will be to have your L2 take the place of your L1 in your brain.
Anyway, I think that maybe this thread has been derailed enough. Maybe some of this side-discussion could be split into its own thread so this one could get back to the original question of "Is anyone here Fluent? How long did it take, and what was your method?"