AlexandreC Wrote:Unlike what Magamo said, native speakers are VERY good at noticing subtle differences in pronunciation. They are not good at understanding what's wrong, let alone explaining it, but they can spot it right away. So yes, native speakers will notice this sound right away if it's not right.
Are you sure? I can't remember if the two "ch"s sounded that difference to my ear, but I just can't convince myself that native speakers are good at noticing subtle differences. I mean, to be honest, I couldn't hear the difference between, for example, ʤ and ʒ used in Japanese, which is my native language... As a native speaker, I've been using them correctly my entire life, but they sounded exactly the same until I learned to hear the difference. Besides, if you listen carefully, there are many native speakers out there who don't follow standard pronunciation rules due to dialects, personal idiosyncrasies, etc., and they don't sound like having a foreign accent at all. Japanese "r" is particularly highly personal in that it's a whole mess of different sounds you can say as "r", and none of them makes you sound very foreign unless your pronunciation is ridiculously off like substituting the typical American "r".
I can understand native speakers would easily notice something is wrong if the different "ch" gets in the way and affects surrounding sounds or the overall flow in his speech. But if you have native speakers listen to the two versions as isolated sounds and ask them which is which, I'm not sure if we can pass a blind test. If it's quite noticeable only in speech, I'm guessing it'd be because it's quite hard or impossible to blend that "ch" naturally so you inevitably screw up the following vowel, interrupt the flow or something along those lones.
Mixing up ʤ and ʒ can be a whole different story though because they're not free allophones; the former is signaling a grammatical boundary. So cases like this may be quite noticeable, though native speakers can't hear the difference if said as isolated sounds. But, ch? Hmm. If I remember correctly, it doesn't have a complicated allophonic rule, so I tend to think it shouldn't matter much. Well, I might be wrong on this one. I'm no expert.
Anyway, I just tried to replace every ち with the English equivalent in a couple Japanese sentences to see if it makes a difference, and I kind of sounded like putting more emotion into it than usual. Also, my English "ch" does extend lips compared with my native Japanese "ch". Reading the description of the voiceless palato-alveolar affricate, I think I can do it either way, but I think what the OP is talking about is the particular version with the lip movement used in English. In fact, if I only change the place of my tongue to get a presudo-English ch (i.e., lips etc., remain the same as the real Japanese one), I can't really say swapping the consonants made a significant difference. My impression was it's well within the range of a normal accent. I might be missing something though because it never occurred to me that it could be without lips extended in the IPA sense. I don't know what your average Japanese would think of the substitution either. I could be subconsciously using more Japanized "ch" than I should when I was doing it too.